A Level Chemistry 9701 Paper 12, May/June 2026

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9701/12 · May/June 2026

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1

Which mass of aluminium is needed to produce 0.10 mol of Al2Cl6? A 0.54 g B 2.7 g C 5.4 g D 10.8 g

2

Compound Q contains the elements C, H and O only. When completely combusted, 2.00 g of Q produces 4.00 g of carbon dioxide and 1.63 g of water. What is the empirical formula of Q? A CHO2 B C2H2O C C2H4O D CH2O2

3

Which row correctly describes the ion 1635S2−?

neutronselectrons
A1616
B1618
C1916
D1918
4

Element X has a higher first ionisation energy than element Y. Two students state one factor that helps to explain this. student 1 'X has a higher first ionisation energy than Y because an atom of X has more protons in its nucleus than an atom of Y.' student 2 'X has a higher first ionisation energy than Y because X has a smaller atomic radius than Y.' Only one of the two students is correct. Which elements could X and Y be?

XY
Acarbonboron
Bmagnesiumaluminium
Coxygennitrogen
Doxygensulfur
5

In which substance, when in pure liquid form, are instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces the only intermolecular force in the substance? A ethyl ethanoate B helium C hydrogen chloride D water

6

Descriptions of some covalent bonds are given. 1 the overlap of two p orbitals 2 the overlap of two sp hybrid orbitals 3 the overlap of two s orbitals Which bonds are present in the hydrogen cyanide molecule, HCN? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

7

Solid X is known to be an element or compound with a giant lattice structure. The identification key shown can be used to identify the type of giant lattice structure in solid X. What are structures 1, 2 and 3, to complete this identification key?

structure 1structure 2structure 3
Acovalentionicmetallic
Bioniccovalentmetallic
Cmetalliccovalentionic
Dionicmetalliccovalent
Figure 1 of 2 for question 7
Figure 2 of 2 for question 7
8

In this question, you should assume that nitrogen behaves as an ideal gas. What is the volume of 15.0 g of nitrogen at a temperature of 70.0 ∘C and a pressure of 192 kPa? A 1.62 dm3 B 7.95 dm3 C 15.9 dm3 D 27.7 dm3

9

An energy cycle is shown.

NO(g)+0.5O2(g)→ΔH1NO2(g)
↑ΔH2↑ΔH3
0.5N2(g)+O2(g)

Which expression equals the enthalpy change of formation of NO? A ΔH1−ΔH3 B −ΔH1−ΔH3 C ΔH3+ΔH1 D ΔH3−ΔH1

10

50 cm3 of 2.50 mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid was placed in a polystyrene beaker of negligible heat capacity. The temperature of the acid was recorded and then 50 cm3 of 2.50 mol dm−3 NaOH at the same temperature was quickly added, with stirring. The temperature rose by 17 ∘C. The resulting solution may be considered to have a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J g−1K−1. What is an approximate value for the molar enthalpy change of neutralisation of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide from this experiment? A −(50×4.2×17)(0.050×2.5) J mol−1 B −(50×4.2×17)(0.10×2.5) J mol−1 C −(100×4.2×17)(0.050×2.5) J mol−1 D −(100×4.2×17)(50×2.5) J mol−1

11

TiO2 is obtained from iron(II) titanate, FeTiO3. What is the change, if any, in the oxidation number of titanium? A It is oxidised from +3 to +4. B It is reduced from +3 to +2. C It is reduced from +6 to +4. D There is no change in the oxidation number.

12

Copper(I) iodide is produced by the reaction shown. 2CuSO4(aq)+4KI(aq)→2CuI(s)+I2(aq)+2K2SO4(aq) Which statement about this reaction is correct? A All iodide ions act as oxidising agents. B All iodide ions act as reducing agents. C All copper ions act as oxidising agents. D All copper ions act as reducing agents.

13

A chemist adds 3.0 mol of nitrogen dioxide to a container. The container is maintained at a constant temperature and equilibrium is reached. 2NO2⇌N2O4 The equilibrium mixture contains 2.3 mol of NO2. What is the amount of N2O4 in the equilibrium mixture? A 0.35 mol B 0.70 mol C 1.40 mol D 1.50 mol

14

Ethanoic acid dissociates in water. CH3COOH+H2O⇌CH3COO−+H3O+ΔH=−2 kJ mol−1 Which change causes the pH of this aqueous solution to decrease? A adding a catalyst B dissolving a small amount of potassium hydroxide into the mixture C decreasing the temperature D dissolving a small amount of sodium ethanoate into the aqueous ethanoic acid

15

The diagram shows a Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies for a gaseous mixture. The distribution has a peak, labelled P. What happens when an effective catalyst is added to the mixture? A The height of the peak decreases and the activation energy moves to the right. B The height of the peak decreases and the activation energy moves to the left. C The height of the peak remains the same and the activation energy moves to the right. D The height of the peak remains the same and the activation energy moves to the left.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 15
16

Which statement about the Period 3 elements sodium to phosphorus and their compounds is correct? A All the chlorides of the elements are hydrolysed by water to form HCl. B As the nuclear charge of the element increases, the electrons in the outer shell are further from the nucleus. C The structure and bonding of all of the elements is either giant ionic or simple covalent. D Only one of the oxides can form a solution with a pH greater than 12 when it is added to water.

17

X, Y and Z are elements in Period 3. Some physical properties of X, Y and Z are shown.

elementmelting point/∘Celectrical conductor
X98yes
Y650yes
Z113no

What are X, Y and Z?

XYZ
Amagnesiumsodiumsulfur
Bmagnesiumsulfursodium
Csodiumsulfurmagnesium
Dsodiummagnesiumsulfur
Figure 1 of 2 for question 17
Figure 2 of 2 for question 17
18

Two procedures are described. 1 Sulfur is burned in an excess of oxygen then NO is added to the product mixture. 2 Sulfur is burned in an excess of oxygen then NO2 is added to the product mixture. Which procedures will produce some sulfur trioxide, SO3? A both 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 only D neither 1 nor 2

19

The chloride of element J is added to a beaker of water. The oxide of element J is then added to the same beaker. A neutralisation reaction occurs. What is element J? A Al B Mg C P D S

20

When calcium nitrate thermally decomposes, oxygen is one of the products. Which volume of oxygen is produced at room conditions when 0.50 mol of calcium nitrate thermally decomposes? A 6.0 dm3 B 12.0 dm3 C 18.0 dm3 D 30.0 dm3

21

Two 0.20 g samples of different Group 2 compounds are each shaken with 10 cm3 of water in separate test-tubes. Which pair of compounds form clear solutions and then become cloudy when mixed together? A barium hydroxide and barium sulfate B barium sulfate and magnesium hydroxide C magnesium sulfate and barium hydroxide D magnesium sulfate and magnesium hydroxide

22

The volatility of the halogens decreases down the group. What is the explanation for this trend? A decreasing strength of covalent bonds B increasing strength of covalent bonds C decreasing strength of London dispersion forces D increasing strength of London dispersion forces

23

Which is the strongest oxidising agent? A Cl2 B Cl− C I2 D I−

24

Ammonia can be made by a suitable reaction using ammonium chloride as one of the reactants. Two statements are given about this reaction. 1 This reaction takes place when ammonium chloride is heated with KOH(aq). 2 The H–N–H bond angle decreases. Which statements are correct? A both 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 only D neither 1 nor 2

25

What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre? A 7 B 8 C 9 D 10

26

The first propagation step in the reaction between methane and chlorine is shown. CH4+Cl∙→CH3∙+HCl How many different first propagation steps are possible in the reaction between pentane and chlorine? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

27

Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. Several isomers with molecular formula C5H10O give an orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH reagent. Which statement is correct? A There are eight isomers only. All of the isomers produce a brick-red precipitate with Fehling’s reagent. B There are eight isomers only. Five of the isomers produce a silver mirror with Tollens’ reagent. C There are six isomers only. Two of the isomers produce a yellow precipitate with alkaline I2(aq). D There are six isomers only. Four of the isomers turn acidified K2Cr2O7 from orange to green on warming.

28

Hydrogen iodide undergoes an addition reaction with propene forming 2-iodopropane. When propene is bubbled through iodine monochloride, ICl, dissolved in a suitable solvent, a similar reaction occurs. Which product will be present in the greatest yield? A CH3CH(Cl)CH2Cl B CH3CH(Cl)CH2I C CH3CH(I)CH2Cl D CH3CH(I)CH2I

29

Tertiary halogenoalkanes undergo a hydrolysis reaction with water. In the equation, X represents either an iodine atom or a chlorine atom. (CH3)3C–X+H2O→(CH3)3C–OH+HX Which statement is correct for this reaction? A The C–I bond is weaker than the C–Cl bond and so the reaction is faster when X is I. B The reaction tends to proceed by the SN2 mechanism. C After the attack on the intermediate by an H2O molecule, the last stage of the mechanism is the transfer of a proton from another water molecule. D The planar intermediate has an unpaired electron which attacks a water molecule to form a C–O bond.

30

A sample of 1-bromopropane, C3H7Br, of mass 36.9 g is heated with an excess of KCN in ethanol. The reaction gives a 78.0% yield of the desired organic product. Which row is correct?

mass of product/gname of product
A16.2butanenitrile
B16.2propanenitrile
C28.8butanenitrile
D28.8propanenitrile
31

Which reaction has ethanol as the major organic product? A C2H4 is reacted with cold dilute acidified KMnO4. B C2H5Br is heated with a concentrated solution of NaOH in ethanol. C CH3CHO is heated with NaBH4. D C2H5COOCH3 is heated under reflux with dilute acid.

32

Methylpropene reacts with steam in the presence of an H3PO4 catalyst. The major product of this reaction is then heated with an excess of acidified KMnO4. If the mixture is distilled after heating, which organic compound will be collected? A butanone B methylpropan-2-ol C methylpropanal D methylpropanoic acid

33

Which pair of compounds can be distinguished by adding alkaline I2(aq)? A ethanal and propanal B ethanol and propan-2-ol C methanol and propan-1-ol D propanone and butanone

34

Two reactions are described. 1 Ethanoic acid reacts with methanol. 2 Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. Which statement is correct? A Both reactions are redox. B Only reaction 1 is redox. C Only reaction 2 is redox. D Neither reaction is redox.

35

Compound Z has the structural formula CH3CO2CH2CH2CO2H. What is produced when compound Z is heated for 30 minutes with an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide? A CH3CO2−Na+ and HOCH2CH2CO2H B CH3CO2−Na+ and HOCH2CH2CO2−Na+ C CH3CO2−Na+ and Na+−OCH2CH2CO2−Na+ D CH3CH2OH and Na+−O2CCH2CO2−Na+

36

Ethanenitrile is heated with an excess of sodium hydroxide until the reaction is complete, giving organic compound X. Which row is correct?

C–C–N bond angle in ethanenitrileC–C–O bond angle in compound X
A120∘109∘
B120∘120∘
C180∘109∘
D180∘120∘
37

An addition polymer has the repeat unit –CH2C(CH3)2–. Which monomer is this polymer produced from? A but-1-ene B but-2-ene C methylpropene D buta-1,3-diene

38

Compound X, CH3CH(OH)CH(CHO)CH3, is heated under reflux with an excess of acidified K2Cr2O7 to form compound Y. Both X and Y are separately warmed with Fehling’s reagent and the observations noted. What are the observations? A Both X and Y give a red precipitate. B Only X gives a red precipitate. C Only Y gives a red precipitate. D Neither X nor Y gives a red precipitate.

39

Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. How many isomeric hydrocarbon molecules: • are non-cyclic • contain exactly four carbon atoms • contain two sp2 hybridised carbon atoms • contain two sp3 hybridised carbon atoms? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

40

The mass spectrum of an alloy of copper and gold is shown. Which expression can be used to calculate the relative atomic mass, Ar, of copper present in this sample? A (56.36×63)+(25.14×65)(56.36+25.14+18.50) B (56.36×63)+(25.14×65)+(18.50×197)(56.36+25.14+18.50) C (56.36×63)+(25.14×65)(56.36+25.14) D (56.36×63)+(25.14×65)(63+65)

Figure 1 of 2 for question 40
Figure 2 of 2 for question 40

Mark scheme

9701/12 · May/June 2026

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Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: C

Question 3

Answer: D

Question 4

Answer: D

Question 5

Answer: B

Question 6

Answer: B

Question 7

Answer: B

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: D

Question 10

Answer: C

Question 11

Answer: D

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: A

Question 14

Answer: C

Question 15

Answer: D

Question 16

Answer: D

Question 17

Answer: D

Question 18

Answer: A

Question 19

Answer: A

Question 20

Answer: A

Question 21

Answer: C

Question 22

Answer: D

Question 23

Answer: A

Question 24

Answer: A

Question 25

Answer: A

Question 26

Answer: B

Question 27

Answer: B

Question 28

Answer: C

Question 29

Answer: A

Question 30

Answer: A

Question 31

Answer: C

Question 32

Answer: B

Question 33

Answer: A

Question 34

Answer: D

Question 35

Answer: B

Question 36

Answer: D

Question 37

Answer: C

Question 38

Answer: B

Question 39

Answer: C

Question 40

Answer: C

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