IGCSE Physics 0625 Paper 22, May/June 2026

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Question paper

0625/22 · May/June 2026

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1

A piece of modelling clay is rolled into the shape of a cylinder. The dimensions shown are approximate. Which apparatus is used to determine the volume of the cylinder? A a protractor B a ruler C a syringe D a stopwatch

Figure 1 of 1 for question 1
2

The diagram shows a speed–time graph for an object. Which sections of the graph show the object moving with constant, non-zero acceleration? A PQ, QR and RS B PQ and RS only C QR only D ST only

Figure 1 of 1 for question 2
3

Which unit is a unit of weight? A kilogram B kilojoule C kilometre D kilonewton

4

Which statement gives a complete description of any object that is in equilibrium? A There are no forces acting. B There is no resultant force. C There is no resultant force and no resultant turning effect. D There is no resultant turning effect.

5

A student is designing a toy. She attaches a model plane to one end of a uniform metal rod. The weight of the metal rod is 0.50 N. The weight of the model plane is 3.5 N. She uses a counterbalance to keep the system in equilibrium. What is the weight of the counterbalance? A 2.5 N B 2.8 N C 3.5 N D 4.7 N

Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

A model car has a mass of 0.50 kg. It is accelerated from rest by a constant resultant force of 2.0 N for a time of 3.0 s. What is the maximum speed of the model car? A 3.0 m/s B 4.0 m/s C 6.0 m/s D 12 m/s

7

The total mass of a cyclist and his bicycle is 80 kg. The cyclist starts from rest and rides down a hill without pedalling. The vertical height of the hill is 50 m. At the bottom of the hill, the speed of the cyclist is 20 m/s. How much energy is wasted as the cyclist rides from the top of the hill to the bottom of the hill? A less than 10 kJ B between 10 kJ and 20 kJ C between 20 kJ and 30 kJ D over 30 kJ

8

Which energy resource does not depend upon the Sun as its source of energy? A coal B geothermal C hydroelectric D wind

9

A whale dives to a depth of 3000 m in sea water. In addition to the gravitational field strength, which variables determine the pressure on the whale due to the water at a depth of 3000 m? A depth, water density and mass of the whale only B depth and water density only C depth, surface area of the whale and mass of the whale only D depth and surface area of the whale only

10

A liquid is at a temperature below its boiling point. The liquid is then heated to a temperature above its boiling point and becomes a gas. Which row correctly compares the liquid with the gas?

average distance between the particlesaverage speed of the particles
Agreater in the liquidgreater in the liquid
Bgreater in the liquidsmaller in the liquid
Csmaller in the liquidgreater in the liquid
Dsmaller in the liquidsmaller in the liquid
Figure 1 of 1 for question 10
11

The diagram shows a sealed syringe containing a gas at a constant temperature. What happens to the gas particles and the pressure of the gas as the plunger is pushed further in?

gas particlespressure of the gas
Ahit the walls of the syringe less frequentlydecreases
Bhit the walls of the syringe less frequentlyincreases
Chit the walls of the syringe more frequentlydecreases
Dhit the walls of the syringe more frequentlyincreases
Figure 1 of 2 for question 11
Figure 2 of 2 for question 11
12

A gas at constant temperature has pressure p and volume V. Which graph shows how p varies with V?

Figure 1 of 3 for question 12
Figure 2 of 3 for question 12
Figure 3 of 3 for question 12
13

900 kJ of energy is transferred to a mass of water. The temperature of the water increases from 20 ∘C to 45 ∘C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/(kg ∘C). Which mass of water is heated? A 0.0086 kg B 5.4 kg C 8.6 kg D 11 kg

14

A beaker of liquid is heated slowly so that the liquid evaporates. During evaporation, from where do the more-energetic molecules leave the liquid?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 14
15

A student uses a tall container and a shallow dish for two experiments heating water. The same mass of water at room temperature is used in each experiment. The tall container is heated until the water boils and the shallow dish is kept warm at a constant temperature with a fan blowing across it. Which row shows the correct graph for the mass of water remaining in each experiment?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 15
Figure 2 of 2 for question 15
16

A warm black surface emits radiation. It is decided to increase the amount of radiation emitted. Which changes increase the amount of radiation emitted? 1 making the surface hotter 2 changing the colour of the surface to white 3 decreasing the area of the surface A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1 only

17

The diagram shows the displacement–time graph for a transverse wave moving at a speed of 2.0 m/s. What is the wavelength of the transverse wave? A 1.2 m B 4.0 m C 8.0 m D 16 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 17
18

When red light travels from air into glass, the speed of the light decreases from 3.0×108 m/s to 2.1×108 m/s. The wavelength of the light in air is 620 nm. What is the wavelength of the light in the glass? A 430 nm B 560 nm C 620 nm D 890 nm

19

Which description of the image of an object in a plane mirror is correct? A upright and real B upright and virtual C upside down and real D upside down and virtual

20

A light ray strikes a plane mirror and is reflected. Which angle is always equal in size to the angle of reflection? A the angle between the incident ray and the mirror B the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the mirror C the angle between the reflected ray and the mirror D the angle between the reflected ray and the incident ray

21

A student is short-sighted. The student is standing in a park looking at a tree in the distance. Where, in relation to the retina, does the eye form an image of the tree, and which type of lens is used to correct the image?

location of imagetype of lens
Abehind retinaconverging
Bbehind retinadiverging
Cin front of retinaconverging
Din front of retinadiverging
Figure 1 of 1 for question 21
22

Students are asked to distinguish between analogue and digital signals. Which statement is correct? A Digital signals cannot transmit data at a higher rate than analogue signals. B Digital signals travel slower than analogue signals. C Digital signals cannot transmit sound data. D Digital signals have values of 1 or 0.

23

A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant, but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased? A amplitude B frequency C speed D wavelength

24

In still air, the air pressure is p and the average distance between the air particles is d. A sound wave produces rarefactions as it travels through the air. In a rarefaction, the air pressure is P and the average distance between the air particles is D. Which statement is correct? A P>p and D>d B P>p and D<d C P<p and D>d D P<p and D<d

25

Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a bar magnet?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 25
Figure 2 of 4 for question 25
Figure 3 of 4 for question 25
Figure 4 of 4 for question 25
26

A crane uses an electromagnet to move heavy vehicles around in a scrap metal yard. Why does the crane use an electromagnet? A Electromagnets are always stronger than all other magnets. B Electromagnets attract all metals. C Electromagnets attract all non-metals. D Electromagnets can be switched on and off.

27

What is the current–voltage (I–V) graph of a filament lamp?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 27
Figure 2 of 2 for question 27
28

There is an electric current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. Which equation can be used to calculate the energy E transferred in the resistor? A E=I×V×t B E=I×Vt C E=IV×t D E=VI×t

29

Two resistors, X and Y, are connected in parallel. The two resistors have a combined resistance of 24 Ω. Resistor X has a resistance of 40 Ω. What is the resistance of resistor Y? A 16 Ω B 32 Ω C 60 Ω D 64 Ω

30

Electrical appliances are connected to a mains circuit by an extension lead with multiple sockets. Which situation may cause the cable of the extension lead to overheat? A Appliances are connected using plugs containing fuses with low ratings. B Appliance cables are surrounded by damp conditions. C The earth wire touches the metal casing of one of the appliances. D Multiple appliances are connected to one socket.

31

The diagrams show a straight wire carrying a current directed into the page. Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field due to the current in the straight wire?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 31
Figure 2 of 2 for question 31
32

A beam of electrons in a vacuum is directed into a region of uniform magnetic field. The initial direction of the beam is perpendicular to the field lines as shown. The beam is deflected by the magnetic field. In which direction is the beam deflected? A upwards B downwards C out of the page D into the page

Figure 1 of 1 for question 32
33

A 100% efficient transformer has 4500 turns on its primary coil and 900 turns on its secondary coil. The primary coil is supplied with a current of 1.5 A at a voltage of 240 V. What is the current in the secondary coil? A 0.30 A B 7.5 A C 160 A D 360 A

34

The diagrams represent the protons, neutrons and electrons in different atoms and ions. Which diagram shows a negatively charged ion?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 34
Figure 2 of 4 for question 34
Figure 3 of 4 for question 34
Figure 4 of 4 for question 34
35

The diagram shows a beam of α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays moving in a vacuum towards the space between a pair of charged plates. Which row shows the deflections of the different particles?

deflection of α-particlesdeflection of β-particlesdeflection of γ-rays
Atowards Xtowards Yundeflected
Btowards Ytowards Xundeflected
Cundeflectedundeflectedtowards X
Dundeflectedtowards Xtowards Y
Figure 1 of 2 for question 35
Figure 2 of 2 for question 35
36

A nucleus of radon, Rn, emits an α-particle and changes into a nucleus of polonium, Po. The equation shows the change. 86aRn→b214Po+24α What are the values of a and b?

ab
A21084
B21088
C21884
D21888
Figure 1 of 1 for question 36
37

A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8.0 days. A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute. Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute. What is the count rate due to the source after 8.0 days? A 80 counts per minute B 90 counts per minute C 100 counts per minute D 110 counts per minute

38

A radiographer works in an area where there is a radioactive source. The radiographer wears a lead apron. How does the apron act as a safety precaution? A It increases the distance between the radiographer and the source. B It reduces the time that the radiographer is exposed to radiation. C It shields the radiographer by absorbing some of the radiation. D It stops radiation reaching the radiographer by reflecting the radiation.

39

Which expression is correct for the orbital period of the Moon around the Earth? A 2πrv B 2πrv C 2πr2v D 2πr2v

40

Proxima Centauri is one of the closest stars to the Earth and is located approximately 4.3 light-years away. What is this distance in kilometres? A 1.3×109 km B 4.1×1013 km C 2.2×1015 km D 4.1×1016 km

Mark scheme

0625/22 · May/June 2026

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Question 1

Answer: B

Question 2

Answer: B

Question 3

Answer: D

Question 4

Answer: C

Question 5

Answer: A

Question 6

Answer: D

Question 7

Answer: C

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: B

Question 10

Answer: D

Question 11

Answer: D

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: C

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: D

Question 17

Answer: D

Question 18

Answer: A

Question 19

Answer: B

Question 20

Answer: B

Question 21

Answer: D

Question 22

Answer: D

Question 23

Answer: A

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: A

Question 26

Answer: D

Question 27

Answer: B

Question 28

Answer: A

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: D

Question 31

Answer: A

Question 32

Answer: C

Question 33

Answer: B

Question 34

Answer: D

Question 35

Answer: A

Question 36

Answer: C

Question 37

Answer: B

Question 38

Answer: C

Question 39

Answer: B

Question 40

Answer: B

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