A Level Physics 9702 Paper 13, Oct/Nov 2023

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9702/13 · Oct/Nov 2023

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1

What is the best estimate of the wavelength of green light? A 260 nm B 540 nm C 780 nm D 920 nm

2

In an electric circuit, an ammeter reads 2 μA. In a second circuit, the ammeter reads 1 mA. How many times larger is the current in the second circuit compared with the current in the first circuit? A 500 B 5000 C 500 000 D 5 000 000

3

A set of repeated measurements is made of a fixed quantity. An average of these measurements is calculated. What is the effect of averaging on the random error and the systematic error in the measurements? A Random error and systematic error are both reduced. B Random error and systematic error are both unaffected. C Random error is reduced but systematic error is unaffected. D Random error is unaffected but systematic error is reduced.

4

A boat is crossing a river in which the water is moving at a speed of 4.0 m s−1 from left to right. In still water, the speed of the boat is 6.0 m s−1. The boat is directed at an angle θ to a line perpendicular to the river banks. The resultant velocity v of the boat is in a direction perpendicular to the river banks. What are the values of θ and v?

θ/∘v/m s−1
A424.5
B427.2
C484.5
D487.2
Figure 1 of 2 for question 4
Figure 2 of 2 for question 4
5

A student walks at a constant speed for a distance of 50 m in a time of 40 s. The student rests for a time of 10 s and then walks back to the starting point at a constant speed in a time of 30 s. What is the distance–time graph for the motion of the student?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

The time taken for an object to fall from rest through a certain distance on Mars is TM. The time taken for the same object to fall from rest through the same distance on Earth is TE. The acceleration of free fall on Mars is 3.71 m s−2. Assume that air resistance is negligible on both Earth and Mars. What is the ratio TMTE? A 0.378 B 0.615 C 1.63 D 2.64

7

Which statement about mass is correct? A Mass has a magnitude and a direction. B Mass resists changes in motion. C The greater the mass of an object, the greater its acceleration when falling in a vacuum. D The mass of an object depends on its location.

8

A snooker ball has a mass of 200 g. It hits the cushion of a snooker table and rebounds along its original path. The ball arrives at the cushion with a speed of 14.0 m s−1 and then leaves it with a speed of 7.0 m s−1. The ball and the cushion are in contact for a time of 0.60 s. What is the average force exerted on the ball by the cushion? A 1.4 N B 2.3 N C 4.2 N D 7.0 N

9

A ball falls from rest through air and eventually reaches a constant velocity. For this fall, forces X and Y vary with time as shown. What could be forces X and Y?

force Xforce Y
Aair resistanceresultant force
Bair resistanceweight
Cupthrustresultant force
Dupthrustweight
Figure 1 of 2 for question 9
Figure 2 of 2 for question 9
10

An object X of mass 0.30 kg is travelling in a straight line at a constant velocity of 3.0 m s−1 on a horizontal frictionless surface. Object X collides with a stationary object Y of mass 0.50 kg. After the collision, X moves with a velocity of 2.0 m s−1 at an angle of 60∘ to its direction before the collision. Object Y moves with a velocity v at an angle of 41∘ to the direction of X before the collision, as shown. What is the value of v? A 0.80 m s−1 B 1.2 m s−1 C 1.6 m s−1 D 1.8 m s−1

Figure 1 of 1 for question 10
11

A uniform rigid beam of length 3.2 m is pivoted at its centre. Two children sit at the opposite ends of the beam, as shown. One child has a mass of 24 kg. The other child has a mass of 36 kg. The heavier child causes one end of the beam to permanently rest on the ground, so that the beam makes an angle of 20∘ to the horizontal ground. What is the moment of the weight of the 24 kg child about the pivot? A 72 N m B 130 N m C 350 N m D 380 N m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 11
12

Two parts of a sailing boat are the mast and the boom. The mast is a vertical rigid beam and the boom is a horizontal rigid beam. One end of the boom is attached to the mast by a pivot. The other end of the boom is connected to the mast by a rope, as shown. The rope is at an angle of 40∘ to the horizontal and exerts a tension force T on the boom. The weight of the boom is 200 N. The mass of the boom is uniformly distributed along its length. The boom is in equilibrium. What is the magnitude of T? A 130 N B 160 N C 260 N D 310 N

Figure 1 of 1 for question 12
13

Full-fat milk is made up of fat-free milk mixed with fat. A volume of 1.000×10−3 m3 of full-fat milk has a mass of 1.035 kg. It contains 4.00% fat by volume. The density of fat-free milk is 1.040×103 kg m−3. What is the density of fat? A 1.25×102 kg m−3 B 9.15×102 kg m−3 C 9.28×102 kg m−3 D 1.16×103 kg m−3

14

Which expression for pressure is correct? A force per unit area B mass per unit area C mass per unit volume D weight per unit volume

15

A wooden cylinder floats partially submerged in a bath of water. A force F is applied to the cylinder until it is just fully submerged. Which statement is not correct? A Some of the water gains gravitational potential energy. B The cylinder loses gravitational potential energy. C Work is done by force F on the cylinder. D Work is done by the upthrust on the cylinder.

Figure 1 of 2 for question 15
Figure 2 of 2 for question 15
16

A system has a useful power output of 4.0 W and a wasted power of 16 W. What is the efficiency of the system? A 5.0% B 20% C 25% D 80%

17

A parachutist is falling towards the ground at a constant speed v. The rate at which she is losing gravitational potential energy is R. The acceleration of free fall is g. What is the mass of the parachutist? A gvR B Rgv C 2Rv2 D v22R

18

A copper wire of diameter 1.6 mm is stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 430 N. The Young modulus of copper is 130 GPa. What is the strain in the wire? A 4.1×10−4 B 1.3×10−3 C 1.6×10−3 D 5.2×10−3

19

Compressive forces are applied normally to the end faces of a cylinder of initial length L. The cylinder is compressed by the forces so that its length decreases to 0.6L. After the compressive forces are removed, the cylinder’s length increases to 0.8L. What describes the deformation of the cylinder when its length was 0.6L? A both elastic and plastic B elastic only C plastic only D neither elastic nor plastic

Figure 1 of 3 for question 19
Figure 2 of 3 for question 19
Figure 3 of 3 for question 19
20

When sound travels through air, the air particles vibrate. A graph of displacement against time for a single air particle is shown. Which graph shows how the kinetic energy of the air particle varies with time?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 20
21

A wave travels on the surface of water. P, Q, R and S are four particles of water on the surface. The diagram shows the positions of the particles at one instant. The direction of travel of the wave is from left to right. Which two particles are about to move upwards? A P and R B P and S C R and S D Q and S

Figure 1 of 1 for question 21
22

A loudspeaker emits sound of frequency fs. The loudspeaker is attached to a car that moves with increasing speed directly towards a stationary observer. Which statement describes the frequency of the sound heard by the observer? A a frequency greater than fs and increasing B a frequency greater than fs but decreasing C a frequency less than fs and decreasing D a frequency less than fs but increasing

23

Which statement about electromagnetic waves in a vacuum is correct? A Amplitude is inversely proportional to velocity. B Frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength. C Intensity is proportional to amplitude. D Velocity is proportional to wavelength.

24

A vertically polarised electromagnetic wave of intensity I0 is incident normally on a polarising filter. The transmission axis of the filter is at an angle of 30∘ to the vertical. The transmitted wave from the first filter is then incident normally on a second polarising filter. The transmission axis of this filter is at an angle of 90∘ to the vertical. What is the intensity of the wave after passing through the second filter? A 0 B 0.063I0 C 0.19I0 D 0.56I0

Figure 1 of 1 for question 24
25

Which statement concerning a stationary wave is correct? A All the particles between two adjacent nodes oscillate in phase. B The amplitude of the stationary wave is equal to the amplitude of one of the waves creating it. C The wavelength of the stationary wave is equal to the separation of two adjacent nodes. D There is no displacement of a particle at an antinode at any time.

26

Stationary sound waves can be formed in the air columns of pipes. One type of pipe is closed at one end and open at the other end. Another type of pipe is open at both ends. Which pipe can form a stationary sound wave with the lowest frequency?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 26
Figure 2 of 4 for question 26
Figure 3 of 4 for question 26
Figure 4 of 4 for question 26
27

Water waves in a ripple tank are made to pass through a small gap, as shown. Which diagram shows the waves after they have passed through the gap?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 27
Figure 2 of 4 for question 27
Figure 3 of 4 for question 27
Figure 4 of 4 for question 27
28

Light of a single wavelength is incident normally on a double slit. The slit separation can be varied. A screen is placed a fixed distance away from the double slit. The screen and double slit are parallel. A pattern of bright interference fringes is observed on a screen. Which graph best shows the variation of the separation x of the bright interference fringes with the slit separation a?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 28
Figure 2 of 2 for question 28
29

A diffraction grating is used to measure the wavelength of light. The spacing of the slits in the grating is 1.15×10−6 m. The angle between the first-order diffraction maxima is 60.0∘, as shown. What is the wavelength of the light? A 288 nm B 498 nm C 575 nm D 996 nm

Figure 1 of 1 for question 29
30

What could not be used to create an electric current? A alpha-particles B beta-particles C neutrons D protons

31

What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component? A the energy transferred per unit charge B the energy transferred per unit current C the power transferred per unit charge D the power transferred per unit current

32

The resistance of a filament lamp increases as the current in it increases. What is the reason for this? A The charge of each charge carrier increases. B The potential difference across the filament decreases. C The power dissipated by the filament decreases. D The temperature of the filament increases.

33

A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 12 V and negligible internal resistance is connected to a fixed resistor of resistance 40 Ω and a thermistor of resistance RT, as shown. Initially, the temperature of the thermistor is 15 ∘C and the current in the circuit is 0.10 A. The temperature of the thermistor then changes, which causes the current to increase to 0.12 A. How does the temperature of the thermistor change and what is RT at the new temperature?

temperature of thermistorR_\text{T} at new temperature/Ω
Aincreases60
Bdecreases60
Cincreases100
Ddecreases100
Figure 1 of 2 for question 33
Figure 2 of 2 for question 33
34

A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 3.0 V and internal resistance 0.50 Ω is connected to a variable resistor, a voltmeter and an ammeter, as shown. The resistance of the variable resistor is varied. The reading on the ammeter I and the reading on the voltmeter V are recorded. Which graph shows how V varies with I?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 34
Figure 2 of 2 for question 34
35

Three resistors, R1, R2 and R3, are connected in parallel to a cell. The currents in the resistors are I1, I2 and I3. The potential differences across the resistors are V1, V2 and V3. The current in the cell is I0. The potential difference across the cell is V0, as shown. Which equation can be obtained by applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the circuit? A I0=I1=I2=I3 B I0=I1+I2+I3 C V0=V1=V2=V3 D V0=V1+V2+V3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 35
36

Three resistors, each of resistance R, are connected in a network, as shown. The total resistance between points X and Y is 8.0 Ω. What is the value of R? A 2.7 Ω B 4.0 Ω C 5.3 Ω D 12 Ω

Figure 1 of 1 for question 36
37

A potentiometer and a driver cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E are used to measure the e.m.f. of a new cell. A sliding contact at P is moved along a resistance wire QR until the reading on the galvanometer is zero. What is an essential requirement for the e.m.f. of the new cell to be measured accurately? A The e.m.f. of the driver cell must be less than the e.m.f. of the new cell. B The galvanometer must have a large resistance. C The internal resistance of the new cell must be zero. D The resistance per unit length of the wire QR must be constant.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 37
38

The table shows the number of nucleons and the total number of particles (protons, neutrons and electrons) in neutral atoms of four nuclides W, X, Y and Z.

number of nucleonstotal number of particles
W1930
X1931
Y2132
Z2231

Which two nuclides are isotopes of each other? A W and X B W and Y C X and Z D Y and Z

39

When a sample of a radioactive isotope decays by α-particle emission, the α-particles emitted have a single discrete energy. When a sample of a radioactive isotope decays by β− particle emission, the β− particles emitted have a continuous range of energies. What is the explanation for this? A An antineutrino is emitted with a β− particle but not with an α-particle. B An antineutrino is emitted with an α-particle but not with a β− particle. C The α-particles have much more energy than the β− particles. D The β− particles have much more energy than the α-particles.

40

Some particles are a combination of three quarks. Which combination of quarks does not result in a particle with a charge of either +1.6×10−19 C or zero? A up, down, down B up, strange, strange C up, up, down D up, up, up

Mark scheme

9702/13 · Oct/Nov 2023

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Question 1

Answer: B

Question 2

Answer: A

Question 3

Answer: C

Question 4

Answer: A

Question 5

Answer: D

Question 6

Answer: C

Question 7

Answer: B

Question 8

Answer: D

Question 9

Answer: A

Question 10

Answer: C

Question 11

Answer: C

Question 12

Answer: B

Question 13

Answer: B

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: D

Question 16

Answer: B

Question 17

Answer: B

Question 18

Answer: C

Question 19

Answer: A

Question 20

Answer: D

Question 21

Answer: D

Question 22

Answer: A

Question 23

Answer: B

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: A

Question 26

Answer: B

Question 27

Answer: A

Question 28

Answer: A

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: C

Question 31

Answer: A

Question 32

Answer: D

Question 33

Answer: A

Question 34

Answer: C

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: D

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: B

Question 39

Answer: A

Question 40

Answer: D

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