IGCSE Physics 0625 Paper 23, May/June 2023

Question paper and mark scheme40 marks40 questions

Solve it on ExamPal

Practise

Untimed. Pick a letter and check as you go.

Start

Exam

Timed, with a clock you set, like sitting the real paper.

Start

Opens full screen.

Papers open in

Opening the question paper

Read as textThe questions and the mark scheme as plain text. Easier to read on a phone.

Question paper

0625/23 · May/June 2023

Download PDF
1

The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object. How far does the object travel at constant speed? A 25 m B 50 m C 75 m D 125 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 1
2

Which statement about a falling object accelerating close to the Earth’s surface is correct? A The weight of the object is increasing and the force of air resistance on the object is decreasing. B The weight of the object and the force of air resistance on the object are of equal magnitude, but act in opposite directions. C The weight of the object is constant, but the force of air resistance on the object is increasing. D The weight of the object is less than the force of air resistance.

3

An aircraft is moving at 60 m / s in a northerly direction when a cross-wind from the east starts to blow. The speed of the wind is 13 m / s. What is the magnitude of the aircraft’s velocity when the wind is blowing? A 47 m / s B 59 m / s C 61 m / s D 73 m / s

4

Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials. Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses. 1 Compare the accelerations with which they fall freely. 2 Compare the values of their lengths×breadths×heights. 3 Hang each in turn from the same spring. Compare the extensions. 4 Place one in the right-hand pan of a beam balance and the other in the left-hand pan. Which methods give a comparison of the two masses? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 3 and 4 only D 4 only

5

An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the height of the space probe is 7.0 N / kg. The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 9.8 N / kg. What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface?

mass / kgweight / N
A0.503.5
B0.504.9
C2.03.5
D2.020
Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed. A constant driving force F acts on the cyclist in the forward direction shown. Which statement about the magnitude of the frictional forces acting on the cyclist is correct? A The magnitude is equal to F. B The magnitude is smaller than F, but greater than zero. C The magnitude is greater than F. D The magnitude is zero.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 6
7

A spring has an unstretched length of 3.0 cm. When a force of 60 N is applied to the spring, its length increases to 5.0 cm. The limit of proportionality is not exceeded. What is the spring constant of the spring? A 7.5 N / cm B 12 N / cm C 20 N / cm D 30 N / cm

8

The diagram shows the minimum force F1 acting vertically on a lever required to lift a heavy log of weight W. The log needs to be lifted by a smaller force than F1. The diagrams show the changes tried. Each diagram has only one change from the original diagram. In each case, F2 is the minimum force required to lift the log. In which situations will F2 be smaller than F1? A P, Q and R B P and Q only C P only D Q and R only

Figure 1 of 4 for question 8
Figure 2 of 4 for question 8
Figure 3 of 4 for question 8
Figure 4 of 4 for question 8
9

A ball of mass 0.25 kg hits a wall at a speed of 16 m / s. It then rebounds back along its original path at a speed of 12 m / s. What is the impulse experienced by the ball during its impact with the wall? A 1.0 Ns B 3.0 Ns C 4.0 Ns D 7.0 Ns

10

A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal energy store. A motor converts energy from a chemical energy store (battery) to a kinetic energy store. What enables these energy transfers?

braking systemmotor
Aelectrical workmechanical work
Belectrical workelectrical work
Cmechanical workmechanical work
Dmechanical workelectrical work
11

Research is being carried out to produce electrical energy from the fusion of hydrogen nuclei. Which row shows two of the problems in designing a fusion reactor?

temperature neededwhy obtaining a high density of hydrogen nuclei is difficult
Avery lowthe nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other
Bvery lowthe nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
Cvery highthe nuclei are negatively charged and repel each other
Dvery highthe nuclei are positively charged and repel each other
12

The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power. Which statement is correct? A The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large. B The engine must have a very large volume. C The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second. D The vehicle must be very fast.

13

The graph shows how the pressure due to a liquid varies with the depth beneath the liquid surface. The gravitational field strength g is 9.8 N / kg. What is the density of the liquid? A 200 kg / m3 B 820 kg / m3 C 2000 kg / m3 D 8200 kg / m3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 13
14

What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of particles at this temperature?

lowest possible temperature / °Cparticle energy
A–273particles have least kinetic energy
B–273particles have zero gravitational potential energy
C0particles have least kinetic energy
D0particles have zero gravitational potential energy
15

Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct? A They are close to each other and slide over each other. B They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points. C They are far apart from each other and vibrate about fixed points. D They are far apart from each other and move freely within the container.

16

Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night, their temperatures decrease. Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate of temperature decrease?

greater rate of temperature increasegreater rate of temperature decrease
Ablackblack
Bblackwhite
Cwhiteblack
Dwhitewhite
Figure 1 of 1 for question 16
17

A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth. Water waves spread out on the surface of the water. Which statement is correct? A The waves are longitudinal and travel at the same speed in all directions. B The waves are longitudinal and travel more quickly in one direction than in others. C The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions. D The waves are transverse and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 17
18

Each point F is one focal length from the centre of the lens. Each point 2F is two focal lengths from the centre of the lens. Which diagram shows a converging lens being used as a magnifying glass?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 18
Figure 2 of 4 for question 18
Figure 3 of 4 for question 18
Figure 4 of 4 for question 18
19

A monochromatic ray of green light in air enters a block of glass. Which property of the ray of light always remains the same as it moves from air to glass? A wavelength B speed C frequency D direction

20

A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum. Which row is correct?

colour 1colour 2colour 3
Ablueyellowred
Bredblueyellow
Credyellowblue
Dyellowbluered
Figure 1 of 2 for question 20
Figure 2 of 2 for question 20
21

A student writes four statements matching a communication system to the region of the electromagnetic spectrum that it uses to transmit signals. Which statement is correct? A Wireless internet uses visible wavelengths. B Mobile phones use X-rays. C Cable television uses infrared wavelengths. D Bluetooth uses ultraviolet wavelengths.

22

A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff. A passenger on the ship hears the echo 4.8 s later. What is the speed of the sound? A 165 m / s B 330 m / s C 340 m / s D 1896 m / s

23

Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the electromagnet?

metalproperty
Aironpermanent magnet
Birontemporary magnet
Csteelpermanent magnet
Dsteeltemporary magnet
24

A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged. The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod. What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?

charge on clothparticles that moved
Anegativeelectrons
Bnegativeneutrons
Cpositiveelectrons
Dpositiveneutrons
25

A student does an experiment to investigate the resistance of a metal wire. The graph shows the results from the experiment. What is plotted on the x-axis? A diameter of the wire B length of the wire C temperature of the wire D current in the wire

Figure 1 of 1 for question 25
26

The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1kWh. A 2200W heater is switched on for 48minutes. What is the cost of this use? A $0.44 B $0.55 C $26 D $440

27

The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal. Which wire has the smallest resistance?

length of wire / mdiameter of wire / mm
A2.01.0
B2.01.5
C3.01.0
D3.01.5
28

The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S. Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R? A switch 1 only B switch 1 and switch 2 C switch 1 and switch 3 D switch 2 and switch 3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

The diagram shows the magnetic field around a solenoid carrying an electric current. What happens to the strength of the magnetic field and the distance between the field lines when the current is increased?

strength of magnetic fielddistance between field lines
Adecreasesdecreases
Bdecreasesincreases
Cincreasesdecreases
Dincreasesincreases
Figure 1 of 2 for question 29
Figure 2 of 2 for question 29
30

The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in the wire in the direction shown. The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire. In which direction does this force act? A into the page (away from you) B out of the page (toward you) C to the left D to the right

Figure 1 of 1 for question 30
31

Which component forms part of a d.c. motor but not a simple moving coil a.c. generator? A the coil B the brushes C the magnet D the split-ring commutator

32

A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil. The output of the secondary coil is 110 V a.c. and is connected to a heater. The transformer is 100% efficient. The heater produces a power of 132 W. What is the current in the primary coil? A 0.11 A B 0.12 A C 11 A D 12 A

33

The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following observations. • Most of the alpha-particles pass through the foil. • Most of the alpha-particles are virtually undeflected. • A small fraction of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles. • A very small fraction of the alpha-particles bounce back from the foil. Which conclusion does not follow from these observations? A Most of the mass of the gold atom is in its nucleus. B Most of the atom is empty space. C The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons. D The nucleus must be charged.

34

A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown. 1735Cl What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine? A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52

35

Which change is occurring in a nucleus during β-emission? A An electron and a neutron become one proton. B An electron and a proton become one neutron. C A neutron becomes one proton and one electron. D A proton becomes one neutron and one electron.

36

The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute. What is the half-life of the isotope? A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

Figure 1 of 1 for question 36
37

Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?

approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sunapproximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth
A1 day30 days
B30 days1 day
C365 days1 day
D365 days30 days
38

Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct? A Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit. B Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit. C Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit. D Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.

39

Which row describes the power source for a stable star?

type of nuclear reactionfuel
Afissionhydrogen
Bfissionuranium
Cfusionhydrogen
Dfusionuranium
40

Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy? A the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth B the distance of the galaxy from the Earth C the Hubble constant D the age of the Universe

Mark scheme

0625/23 · May/June 2023

Download PDF

Question 1

Answer: B

Question 2

Answer: C

Question 3

Answer: C

Question 4

Answer: C

Question 5

Answer: B

Question 6

Answer: A

Question 7

Answer: D

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: D

Question 10

Answer: D

Question 11

Answer: D

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: B

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: A

Question 17

Answer: C

Question 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Answer: C

Question 20

Answer: C

Question 21

Answer: C

Question 22

Answer: B

Question 23

Answer: B

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: A

Question 26

Answer: A

Question 27

Answer: B

Question 28

Answer: A

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: A

Question 31

Answer: D

Question 32

Answer: A

Question 33

Answer: C

Question 34

Answer: C

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: A

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: B

Question 39

Answer: C

Question 40

Answer: B

Questions

  1. 1
    Question 11 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  2. 2
    Question 21 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  3. 3
    Question 31 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  4. 4
    Question 41 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  5. 5
    Question 51 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  6. 6
    Question 61 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  7. 7
    Question 71 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  8. 8
    Question 81 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  9. 9
    Question 91 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  10. 10
    Question 101 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  11. 11
    Question 111 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  12. 12
    Question 121 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  13. 13
    Question 131 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  14. 14
    Question 141 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  15. 15
    Question 151 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  16. 16
    Question 161 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  17. 17
    Question 171 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  18. 18
    Question 181 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  19. 19
    Question 191 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  20. 20
    Question 201 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  21. 21
    Question 211 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  22. 22
    Question 221 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  23. 23
    Question 231 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  24. 24
    Question 241 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  25. 25
    Question 251 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  26. 26
    Question 261 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  27. 27
    Question 271 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  28. 28
    Question 281 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  29. 29
    Question 291 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  30. 30
    Question 301 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  31. 31
    Question 311 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  32. 32
    Question 321 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  33. 33
    Question 331 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  34. 34
    Question 341 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  35. 35
    Question 351 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  36. 36
    Question 361 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  37. 37
    Question 371 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  38. 38
    Question 381 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  39. 39
    Question 391 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  40. 40
    Question 401 mark
    Mark scheme ›

More 0625 papers

Other papers from May/June 2023

Solve it on ExamPalStart