IGCSE Physics 0625 Paper 22, May/June 2023

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Question paper

0625/22 · May/June 2023

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1

Forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles, as shown. What is the resultant force? A 1 N along XZ B 5 N along XZ C 5 N along OY D 7 N along OY

Figure 1 of 1 for question 1
2

A light ball is held at rest at the top of a tall cliff. It is released and falls through the air, eventually reaching its terminal velocity. Which row describes the behaviour of the ball as it descends?

the initial acceleration of the ballthe final acceleration of the ball
A00
B0g
Cg0
Dgg
3

The graph represents the motion of a car. How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s? A 2 m B 10 m C 25 m D 50 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 3
4

Which statement about mass or weight is not correct? A Masses can be compared using a balance. B Mass is a force. C Weights can be compared using a balance. D Weight is a force.

5

A sphere P, made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Earth. Another sphere Q, also made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Mars. The gravitational field strength on Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on Mars. Which statement is correct? A The mass of sphere P is the same as the mass of sphere Q. B The mass of sphere P is less than the mass of sphere Q. C On Mars, the weight of sphere P is the same as the weight of sphere Q. D On Earth, the weight of sphere Q is less than 10 N.

6

Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material? A mass and area B mass and volume C weight and area D weight and volume

7

A truck is towing a car along a straight horizontal road at a constant speed. The rope breaks. Which row gives the direction of the initial acceleration of the truck after the rope breaks and the reason for the acceleration?

direction of acceleration of the truckreason
Aleftthe driving force is greater than the resistive forces on the truck
Bleftthe driving force is smaller than the resistive forces on the truck
Crightthe driving force is greater than the resistive forces on the truck
Drightthe driving force is smaller than the resistive forces on the truck
Figure 1 of 2 for question 7
Figure 2 of 2 for question 7
8

A uniform beam is pivoted at the centre and two identical masses, X and Y, are placed so that the beam balances. A smaller mass is then added at the position shown. How can the masses be positioned so the beam balances again? A Move X away from the pivot. B Move X towards the pivot. C Move Y towards the pivot. D Move the small mass away from the pivot.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 8
9

A resultant force of 2.0 N acts on an object of mass 3.0 kg for 6.0 s. What is the change in velocity of the object? A 0.25 m/s B 1.0 m/s C 4.0 m/s D 36 m/s

10

The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred between stores. What describes how the chemical energy is transferred? A electrical work done B mechanical work done C electromagnetic waves D sound waves

Figure 1 of 1 for question 10
11

A wind turbine is 30% efficient and has an output of 2.5 MW of electrical power. What is the power input to the turbine? A 0.75 MW B 8.3 MW C 75 MW D 83 MW

12

Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student running up a flight of steps? A force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only B force exerted and the time taken only C work done and the vertical height of the steps only D work done and the time taken only

13

The density of sea water is 1030 kg/m3. The gravitational field strength on the Earth is 9.8 N/kg. Atmospheric pressure is 101 000 Pa. At which depth in sea water is the total pressure due to the atmosphere and the water equal to 513 000 Pa? A 40.8 m B 50.8 m C 400 m D 498 m

14

Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model. Which student is correct? A This is the lowest possible temperature. B Particles in a solid start vibrating. C Particles do not have any weight. D Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.

15

Four students are asked to state and explain the relative magnitudes of the thermal expansion of solids and gases. Which student is correct? A Gases expand more than solids because the molecules in a gas are in random motion. B Gases expand more than solids because the attractive forces between molecules are much weaker in gases. C Solids expand more than gases because the molecules are closer together in solids. D Solids expand more than gases because the molecules in a solid are in a regular pattern.

16

Four cups A, B, C and D contain hot coffee. Which cup keeps the coffee warm the longest?

the outside surface of the cupthe top of the cup
Ablackcovered with a lid
Bblackno lid
Cwhitecovered with a lid
Dwhiteno lid
Figure 1 of 2 for question 16
Figure 2 of 2 for question 16
17

The diagram shows a wave. What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cmwavelength / cm
A34
B38
C64
D68
18

Optical fibres are used to transmit digital signals using infrared radiation. The average refractive index of the fibres is 1.50. Which row describes a digital signal and gives the speed of infrared radiation in the fibres?

digital signalspeed of infrared radiation in the fibres / m/s
Aa signal that consists of only two values2.0×108
Ba signal that consists of only two values4.5×108
Ca signal that consists of a continuous range of values2.0×108
Da signal that consists of a continuous range of values4.5×108
19

Which statement describes monochromatic light? A light of a single frequency B light transmitted by a transparent prism C visible light D white light

20

A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light. The beam of light is incident on a glass prism. Which diagram is correct? A [Diagram showing yellow refracted more than blue, dispersed at boundary] B [Diagram showing blue refracted more than yellow, dispersed at second boundary] C [Diagram showing yellow ray going above blue ray] D [Diagram showing yellow ray going above blue ray, emerging dispersed]

Figure 1 of 3 for question 20
Figure 2 of 3 for question 20
Figure 3 of 3 for question 20
21

A radio station broadcasts a signal with a frequency of 89 MHz. What is the wavelength of this signal? A 3.7 μm B 3.4 m C 3.7 km D 3.4 Mm

22

A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. How far away from the boy is the building? A 150 m B 300 m C 360 m D 730 m

23

The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines. Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly? A [Diagram showing field lines pointing away from N and towards S] B [Diagram showing field lines pointing towards N and towards S] C [Diagram showing field lines pointing towards N and away from S] D [Diagram showing field lines pointing away from N and away from S]

Figure 1 of 1 for question 23
24

A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged. Why has the rod become positively charged? A It has gained electrons. B It has gained neutrons. C It has lost electrons. D It has lost neutrons.

25

Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct? A In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor. B In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth. C In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time. D In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.

26

A piece of metal wire X with a uniform diameter has resistance R. A second piece of wire Y is made of the same metal and has a uniform diameter. Y has double the cross-sectional area of X and half the length of X. What is the resistance of Y? A R4 B R2 C R D 4R

Figure 1 of 2 for question 26
Figure 2 of 2 for question 26
27

An electric fire is connected to a 240 V supply and transfers energy at a rate of 1.0 kW. How much charge passes through the fire in 1.0 h? A 42 C B 250 C C 1.5×104 C D 2.4×105 C

28

Two lamps are connected in parallel. Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light? A S1 and S2 only B S1 and S3 only C S2 and S3 only D S1, S2 and S3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

The diagram shows a circuit that switches on a lamp when there is a change in the environment. Which change in the environment causes the lamp to be switched on? A a decrease in light intensity B a decrease in temperature C an increase in light intensity D an increase in temperature

Figure 1 of 1 for question 29
30

A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output voltage of 60 V a.c. The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A. What is the current in the secondary coil? A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A

31

The diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field due to the current I in a straight wire. Which row is correct?

direction of fieldrelative strength of field
AXgreater at P than Q
BYgreater at P than Q
CXgreater at Q than P
DYgreater at Q than P
Figure 1 of 2 for question 31
Figure 2 of 2 for question 31
32

In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used? A electromagnet B loudspeaker C potential divider D relay

33

Fission and fusion are two types of nuclear process. How does the total mass of the nuclides produced compare with the total mass of the original nuclide or nuclides in these nuclear processes?

total mass of fission products compared to original nuclidetotal mass of fusion products compared to original nuclides
Asamesame
Bmoreless
Clessmore
Dlessless
34

The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.

nucleusnumber of protonsnumber of neutrons
X33
Y34
Z43

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element? A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

35

Which change occurs in the nucleus of a radioactive atom during β-emission? A A neutron transforms into a proton and an electron. B A neutron transforms into a proton only. C A proton transforms into a neutron and an electron. D A proton transforms into a neutron only.

36

A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days. A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute. Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute. What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days? A 80 counts per minute B 90 counts per minute C 100 counts per minute D 110 counts per minute

37

Which statement about the Solar System is correct? A All the planets are rocky. B Only the Earth has a moon. C Pluto is a dwarf planet. D There are many stars in the Solar System.

38

Comets are bodies which orbit the Sun in the Solar System. What is the shape of the orbit and how is the Sun positioned within the orbit?

shape of orbitposition of the Sun
Acircularcentre of orbit
Bcircularnot at centre of orbit
Cellipticalcentre of orbit
Dellipticalnot at centre of orbit
39

Which nuclear reaction produces the release of energy to power a star? A nuclear fission of helium into hydrogen B nuclear fission of hydrogen into helium C nuclear fusion of helium into hydrogen D nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

40

What is the definition of the Hubble constant? A the ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the Earth to its distance from the Earth B the value of the change in wavelength of the galaxy’s starlight due to redshift C the constant used to represent the rate of expansion of the Universe in all directions D the estimated constant equal to the age of the Universe

Mark scheme

0625/22 · May/June 2023

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Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: C

Question 3

Answer: C

Question 4

Answer: B

Question 5

Answer: B

Question 6

Answer: B

Question 7

Answer: C

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: C

Question 10

Answer: A

Question 11

Answer: B

Question 12

Answer: D

Question 13

Answer: A

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: B

Question 16

Answer: C

Question 17

Answer: B

Question 18

Answer: A

Question 19

Answer: A

Question 20

Answer: D

Question 21

Answer: B

Question 22

Answer: C

Question 23

Answer: A

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: D

Question 26

Answer: A

Question 27

Answer: C

Question 28

Answer: D

Question 29

Answer: D

Question 30

Answer: C

Question 31

Answer: D

Question 32

Answer: C

Question 33

Answer: D

Question 34

Answer: B

Question 35

Answer: A

Question 36

Answer: B

Question 37

Answer: C

Question 38

Answer: D

Question 39

Answer: D

Question 40

Answer: A

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