A Level Chemistry 9701 Paper 13, May/June 2025

Question paper and mark scheme40 marks40 questions

Solve it on ExamPal

Practise

Untimed. Pick a letter and check as you go.

Start

Exam

Timed, with a clock you set, like sitting the real paper.

Start

Opens full screen.

Opening the question paper

Read as textThe questions and the mark scheme as plain text. Easier to read on a phone.

Question paper

9701/13 · May/June 2025

Download PDF
1

Which isolated gaseous atom has a total of five electrons occupying spherically shaped orbitals? A sodium B fluorine C boron D potassium

2

Diagram 1 shows the reaction pathway for a reaction. Diagram 2 shows a graph of concentration of reactant against time for the same reaction. Which diagrams, drawn to the same scale, show the effect of increased temperature on this reaction?

Figure 1 of 5 for question 2
Figure 2 of 5 for question 2
Figure 3 of 5 for question 2
Figure 4 of 5 for question 2
Figure 5 of 5 for question 2
3

The equation shows the overall reaction between an amine and an acid chloride. 2CH3CH2NH2+CH3CH2COCl→CH3CH2CONHCH2CH3+CH3CH2NH3Cl The four steps in the mechanism are as follows. 1 CH3CH2C(O)Cl+H2NCH2CH3→CH3CH2C(O−)(Cl)N+H2CH2CH3 2 CH3CH2C(O−)(Cl)N+H2CH2CH3→CH3CH2C(=O)N+H2CH2CH3+Cl− 3 CH3CH2C(=O)N+H2CH2CH3+Cl−→CH3CH2C(=O)NHCH2CH3+HCl 4 CH3CH2NH2+HCl→CH3CH2NH3Cl Which steps are Brønsted–Lowry acid–base reactions? A 1 and 3 B 3 and 4 C 3 only D 4 only

Figure 1 of 2 for question 3
Figure 2 of 2 for question 3
4

Chromium is present in compound X. ● Two moles of compound X react with exactly 3 moles of silicon. ● The only products of this reaction are 4 moles of chromium and 3 moles of a silicon compound in which the oxidation state of the silicon is +4. ● Chromium and silicon are the only elements that change their oxidation states in this reaction. What could be the identity of compound X? A Cr2O3 B Cr2H6 C Cr2H4 D Cr2O4

5

The reversible reaction shown is in equilibrium at a temperature of 450 ∘C. H2+I2⇌2HIΔH=−9.5 kJ mol−1 The table shows the equilibrium concentrations in the reaction mixture.

H2I2HI
1.02 mol dm−30.02 mol dm−30.98 mol dm−3

The temperature of the reaction mixture is increased at constant volume. The concentration of one of the components falls to 0.80 mol dm−3 at equilibrium under these conditions. What is the concentration of H2 in the new equilibrium mixture? A 0.80 mol dm−3 B 0.93 mol dm−3 C 1.11 mol dm−3 D 1.20 mol dm−3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

The first stage in the industrial production of nitric acid from ammonia can be represented by the following equation. 4NH3(g)+5O2(g)⇌4NO(g)+6H2O(g) Using the following standard enthalpy change of formation data, what is the value of the standard enthalpy change, ΔH∘, for this reaction?

compoundΔHf∘/kJ mol−1
NH3(g)−46.1
NO(g)+90.3
H2O(g)−241.8

A +905.2 kJ mol−1 B −105.4 kJ mol−1 C −905.2 kJ mol−1 D −1274.0 kJ mol−1

7

The gaseous compound Z decomposes on heating. In the diagram, Boltzmann distributions for Z at two different temperatures, P and Q, are shown. The lines X and Y indicate activation energies for the decomposition of Z with and without a catalyst. Which curve and which line describe the decomposition of Z at a higher temperature and with a catalyst present?

higher temperaturecatalyst present
APX
BPY
CQX
DQY
Figure 1 of 2 for question 7
Figure 2 of 2 for question 7
8

The structure of a molecule found in food is shown. Four statements about the molecule are listed. 1 This molecule contains only σ bonds. 2 This molecule contains both σ and π bonds. 3 The six-membered ring is planar. 4 The six-membered ring is non-planar. Which two statements are correct? A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

Figure 1 of 1 for question 8
9

In which substance are covalent bonds broken as it melts? A silicon(IV) oxide B ice C iodine D ethanol

10

Why is the second ionisation energy of sodium larger than the second ionisation energy of magnesium? A The attraction between the nucleus and the outer electron is greater in Na+ than in Mg+. B The nuclear charge of Na+ is greater than that of Mg+. C The outer electron of Na+ is more shielded than the outer electron of Mg+. D The outer electron of Na is in the same orbital as the outer electron of Mg.

11

BF3 reacts with NH3 to form a single compound with a simple molecular structure. BF3+NH3→F3B–NH3 Which row describes how the bond angles change during the reaction?

F–B–F bond angleH–N–H bond angle
Adecreasesdecreases
Bdecreasesincreases
Cincreasesdecreases
Dincreasesincreases
Figure 1 of 1 for question 11
12

The equation for the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen is shown. N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)ΔHr∘=−92.2 kJ mol−1 Which statement is correct? A ΔHr∘ is measured at 298 ∘C. B ΔHr∘ is measured at 101 kPa. C ΔHr∘ represents the standard enthalpy change for the formation of ammonia gas. D ΔHr∘ represents the enthalpy change when 1.0 mol of N2(g) reacts with 1.0 mol of H2(g).

13

Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, decomposes into water and oxygen when a suitable catalyst is added. 20.0 cm3 of aqueous hydrogen peroxide decomposes to produce 600 cm3 of oxygen at room conditions. What is the concentration of the aqueous hydrogen peroxide? A 5.00 mol dm−3 B 2.50 mol dm−3 C 1.25 mol dm−3 D 0.625 mol dm−3

14

When 0.15 g of an organic compound is vaporised, it occupies a volume of 65.0 cm3 at 405 K and 1.00×105 Pa. Using the expression pV=nRT, which expression should be used to calculate the relative molecular mass, Mr, of the compound? A 0.15×65×10−6×1×1058.31×405 B 0.15×8.31×4051×105×65×10−3 C 0.15×65×10−3×1×1058.31×405 D 0.15×8.31×4051×105×65×10−6

15

A washing powder contains sodium hydrogencarbonate, NaHCO3, as one of the ingredients. In a titration, a solution containing 1.00 g of this washing powder requires 7.15 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm−3 sulfuric acid for complete reaction. The sodium hydrogencarbonate is the only ingredient that reacts with the acid. What is the percentage by mass of sodium hydrogencarbonate in the washing powder? A 3.0% B 6.0% C 12.0% D 24.0%

16

The flow chart shows some reactions of nitrogen compounds. gas 1→acidsalt 1→alkalisalt 2 + other products Which row identifies gas 1 and salt 2?

gas 1salt 2
Aammoniaammonium nitrate
Bammoniasodium nitrate
Cnitrogen dioxideammonium nitrate
Dnitrogen dioxidesodium nitrate
Figure 1 of 1 for question 16
17

Mixing aqueous silver nitrate and aqueous sodium chloride produces a precipitate. Addition of which reagent to the mixture gives a colourless solution? A aqueous ammonia B aqueous potassium iodide C dilute hydrochloric acid D dilute nitric acid

18

Which statement is correct? A Barium oxide reacts with water at room temperature to form barium hydroxide and hydrogen. B Calcium oxide does not react with water at room temperature. C Magnesium hydroxide reacts with steam to form magnesium oxide and hydrogen. D Strontium oxide reacts with water at room temperature to form strontium hydroxide only.

19

Which statement about the properties of halogens and hydrogen halides is correct? A A chloride ion is a stronger reducing agent than an iodide ion. B Chlorine is more volatile than bromine because chlorine has stronger intermolecular forces. C Hydrogen bromide is more thermally stable than hydrogen iodide because it has a stronger covalent bond. D Iodine is less reactive than bromine because iodine has weaker covalent bonds.

20

Three statements about the chemical periodicity of Period 3 oxides are listed. 1 The maximum oxidation state of the Period 3 elements in their oxides increases from sodium to phosphorus, then decreases from phosphorus to sulfur. 2 The oxides from sodium to aluminium dissolve in water without hydrolysis; from silicon to sulfur they are hydrolysed by water. 3 The structure and bonding changes from giant ionic to giant covalent to simple molecular. Which statements are correct? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

21

Which dot-and-cross diagrams represent molecules that can react with unburned hydrocarbons to form peroxyacetyl nitrate, PAN, a component of photochemical smog? A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

Figure 1 of 4 for question 21
Figure 2 of 4 for question 21
Figure 3 of 4 for question 21
Figure 4 of 4 for question 21
22

Which set of three elements contains a single element that has both the highest melting point and the lowest electrical conductivity of the three elements in the set? A magnesium, aluminium and silicon B aluminium, silicon and phosphorus C sodium, magnesium and aluminium D silicon, phosphorus and chlorine

23

In which row do the particles increase in size?

smallest⟶largest
ANOF
BN3−O2−F−
CNa+Mg2+Al3+
DNa+NeF−
24

W, X, Y and Z are Group 2 elements barium, calcium, magnesium and strontium but not in that order. W reacts faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than Y. The hydroxide of X is less soluble in water than the hydroxide of W. The sulfate of Y is the most soluble of the sulfates of W, X, Y and Z. The carbonate of Z decomposes more slowly than the carbonate of W at the same temperature. What is the Mr of the nitrate of W? A 148.3 B 164.1 C 211.6 D 261.3

25

Polymer J has repeat unit –[CH(C2H5)CH(CH3)]–. Polymer K has repeat unit –[CH(CH3)CH(CH3)]–. Which row is correct?

monomer from which polymer J is producedmonomer from which polymer K is produced
Apent-1-enebut-1-ene
Bpent-1-enebut-2-ene
Cpent-2-enebut-1-ene
Dpent-2-enebut-2-ene
26

0.200 mol ethanenitrile reacts with an excess of dilute sodium hydroxide. The reaction produces organic compound S and ammonia gas only. The reaction has an 80.0% yield. Which mass of S is produced? A 9.60 g B 13.1 g C 15.4 g D 16.4 g

27

The structure of butenedioic acid is shown. When an excess of NaOH(aq) is added to butenedioic acid, which organic product is formed?

Figure 1 of 5 for question 27
Figure 2 of 5 for question 27
Figure 3 of 5 for question 27
Figure 4 of 5 for question 27
Figure 5 of 5 for question 27
28

Four organic compounds are shown. A mixture of these four compounds reacts with hot aqueous sodium hydroxide. The products of this reaction are acidified. Which organic acids are present in the products? A butanoic, ethanoic and propanoic acids B butanoic, ethanoic and methanoic acids C ethanoic, 3-methylbutanoic and propanoic acids D methanoic, 3-methylbutanoic and propanoic acids

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

Ethanal reacts with KCN dissolved in liquid HCN. This reaction involves the formation of an intermediate. Which statement is correct? A HCN does not have any lone pairs of electrons and so CN− is the catalyst. B The Oδ− of C=O attacks K+ in a nucleophilic attack. C A proton from HCN is transferred to the intermediate. D The reaction is a nucleophilic substitution.

30

What is formed when propanone is heated under reflux with a solution of NaBH4? A propan-2-ol B propan-1-ol C propanal D propane

31

The compounds shown are all produced by plants. Each compound is warmed with acidified K2Cr2O7. Which compound will give a different observation to the other three?

Figure 1 of 3 for question 31
Figure 2 of 3 for question 31
Figure 3 of 3 for question 31
32

Structural and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. How many alcohols with the molecular formula C5H12O give a yellow precipitate with alkaline I2(aq)? A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

33

An amine is produced in the following reaction. C2H5I+2NH3→C2H5NH2+NH4I What is the mechanism? A electrophilic addition B free-radical substitution C nucleophilic addition D nucleophilic substitution

34

The reaction shown can be used to lengthen a carbon chain. CH3CH2CH2Br+CN−→CH3CH2CH2CN+Br− Which row shows the correct reagent and conditions for this reaction?

reagentconditions
AKCNheat under reflux in dilute sulfuric acid
BKCNheat under reflux in ethanol
CHCNheat under reflux in dilute sulfuric acid
DHCNheat under reflux in ethanol
Figure 1 of 1 for question 34
35

Which row shows the products formed when cyclohexene reacts with acidified KMnO4 under different conditions?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 35
36

Two steps in the free-radical substitution reaction between methane and chlorine are shown. step 1 CH3∙+Cl2→CH3Cl+Cl∙ step 2 CH3Cl+Cl∙→CH2Cl∙+HCl Which statement is correct? A Step 1 is initiation and step 2 is propagation. B Step 1 is propagation and step 2 is termination. C Step 1 is initiation and step 2 is termination. D Both steps are propagation.

37

Compound P displays cis/trans isomerism and gives a red-brown precipitate with Fehling’s solution. What is P?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 37
38

Fructose is a sugar with more than one chiral centre. The fructose molecule is shown with X, Y and Z indicating three carbon atoms. Which carbon atoms are chiral centres? A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X only D Y only

Figure 1 of 1 for question 38
39

An organic compound, T, contains only one functional group. Compound T has the empirical formula C2H4O. Some functional groups are listed. 1 alcohol 2 aldehyde 3 ester 4 ketone Which functional groups are possible for compound T? A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

40

The mass spectrum of an organic compound has the following features. ● The molecular ion peak is at m/e=60. This peak has a relative intensity = 100. ● There is a peak at m/e=61, which has a relative intensity = 2.2. ● There is no fragment peak at m/e=17. ● There is a fragment peak at m/e=31. What could be the identity of the organic compound? A methyl methanoate, HCOOCH3 B methoxyethane, CH3OC2H5 C ethanoic acid, CH3COOH D propan-2-ol, CH3CH(OH)CH3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 40

Mark scheme

9701/13 · May/June 2025

Download PDF

Question 1

Answer: A

Question 2

Answer: C

Question 3

Answer: B

Question 4

Answer: A

Question 5

Answer: C

Question 6

Answer: C

Question 7

Answer: C

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: A

Question 10

Answer: A

Question 11

Answer: B

Question 12

Answer: B

Question 13

Answer: B

Question 14

Answer: D

Question 15

Answer: C

Question 16

Answer: B

Question 17

Answer: A

Question 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Answer: C

Question 20

Answer: D

Question 21

Answer: D

Question 22

Answer: A

Question 23

Answer: D

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: D

Question 26

Answer: B

Question 27

Answer: A

Question 28

Answer: B

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: A

Question 31

Answer: D

Question 32

Answer: C

Question 33

Answer: D

Question 34

Answer: B

Question 35

Answer: A

Question 36

Answer: D

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: B

Question 39

Answer: C

Question 40

Answer: A

Questions

  1. 1
    Question 11 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  2. 2
    Question 21 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  3. 3
    Question 31 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  4. 4
    Question 41 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  5. 5
    Question 51 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  6. 6
    Question 61 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  7. 7
    Question 71 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  8. 8
    Question 81 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  9. 9
    Question 91 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  10. 10
    Question 101 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  11. 11
    Question 111 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  12. 12
    Question 121 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  13. 13
    Question 131 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  14. 14
    Question 141 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  15. 15
    Question 151 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  16. 16
    Question 161 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  17. 17
    Question 171 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  18. 18
    Question 181 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  19. 19
    Question 191 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  20. 20
    Question 201 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  21. 21
    Question 211 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  22. 22
    Question 221 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  23. 23
    Question 231 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  24. 24
    Question 241 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  25. 25
    Question 251 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  26. 26
    Question 261 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  27. 27
    Question 271 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  28. 28
    Question 281 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  29. 29
    Question 291 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  30. 30
    Question 301 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  31. 31
    Question 311 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  32. 32
    Question 321 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  33. 33
    Question 331 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  34. 34
    Question 341 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  35. 35
    Question 351 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  36. 36
    Question 361 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  37. 37
    Question 371 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  38. 38
    Question 381 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  39. 39
    Question 391 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  40. 40
    Question 401 mark
    Mark scheme ›

More 9701 papers

Other papers from May/June 2025

Solve it on ExamPalStart