O Level Physics 5054 Paper 11, May/June 2024

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5054/11 · May/June 2024

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1

A measuring cylinder containing water is placed on a top-pan balance. An object is placed into the measuring cylinder. What is the mass and what is the volume of the object?

mass / gvolume / cm3
A107
B1034
C3410
D3417
Figure 1 of 3 for question 1
Figure 2 of 3 for question 1
Figure 3 of 3 for question 1
2

Which quantity is a vector? A distance B force C mass D speed

3

The table shows the distance travelled by a car in each 2 s time interval during a 12 s period of its journey.

time interval / s0–22–44–66–88–1010–12
distance travelled in time interval / m101011131623

Which statement describes the motion of the car? A moving with constant speed from 0–4 s, followed by non-uniform acceleration B moving with constant speed from 0–4 s, then uniform acceleration C at rest from 0–4 s, then non-uniform acceleration D at rest from 0–4 s, then uniform acceleration

4

Two cubes, X and Y, have the same mass, but the length of a side of X is twice that of Y. What is the value of the ratio density of Xdensity of Y? A 0.125 B 1.0 C 4.0 D 8.0

5

An object slides down a frictionless slope as shown. As the object presses on the surface, the surface pushes back on the object. In which direction does the surface push back on the object? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

A car, travelling on a straight road, brakes and comes to a stop. Which row gives the expression for calculating the thinking distance and gives a variable that affects thinking distance?

expression for calculating thinking distancevariable that affects thinking distance
Abraking distance + stopping distanceload carried
Bbraking distance + stopping distancespeed of car
Cstopping distance – braking distanceload carried
Dstopping distance – braking distancespeed of car
7

An unstretched spring of length 15.0 cm stretches by 4.0 cm when a mass of weight 6.0 N is suspended from it. The spring does not exceed the limit of proportionality. What is the total length of the spring when the weight of the suspended mass is 3.0 N? A 2.0 cm B 7.5 cm C 9.5 cm D 17.0 cm

8

Which statements describing the moment of a force about a pivot are correct? 1 The moment of a force is a measure of the turning effect of the force. 2 The moment of a force is equal to the force × perpendicular distance from the pivot. 3 The moment of a force is equal to the force × pressure on the pivot. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

9

Four objects have identical shapes but different distributions of mass. The centre of gravity of each object is shown by the dot marked G. Which object is the most stable? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 9
10

An object of mass 5.0 kg is pushed up a slope at a steady speed of 2.0 m / s. Which calculation gives the change in gravitational potential energy from the bottom to the top? A 0.50×5.0×2.0 B 5.0×9.8×3.0 C 0.50×5.0×2.02 D 5.0×9.8×8.0

Figure 1 of 1 for question 10
11

A student of mass 60 kg climbs some steps. He travels a horizontal distance of 2.0 m and a vertical distance of 1.5 m. What is the work done against the force of gravity? A 88 J B 118 J C 880 J D 1200 J

Figure 1 of 1 for question 11
12

Which method of producing electricity does not involve a turbine? A hydroelectric power station B nuclear power station C solar cells D wind generator

13

The input power to a lamp is 6.0 W. The lamp wastes 2.7 J of energy in 3.0 s. What is the efficiency of the lamp? A 0.15 B 0.45 C 0.55 D 0.85

14

A camera is taken under water and left at a depth of 8.0 m. atmospheric pressure=100 000 Pa density of water=1000 kg/m3 What is the total pressure acting on the camera? A 22 000 Pa B 78 000 Pa C 110 000 Pa D 178 000 Pa

15

In which example are the particles in fixed positions? A ice in an ice cube B water in a lake C air in an air bubble D water vapour in the atmosphere

16

A gas expands slowly and its temperature remains constant. What happens to the gas particles? A They move further apart and their average speed decreases. B They move further apart and their average speed increases. C They move further apart and their average speed remains unchanged. D They stay the same distance apart and their average speed decreases.

17

The air in each of four syringes is slowly compressed so that the temperature of the air stays constant. The volumes before and after compression for each syringe are given in the table. The air in all four syringes is initially at the same pressure. Which syringe shows the smallest pressure change?

volume before compression / cm3volume after compression / cm3
A5010
B10050
C40025
D400100
Figure 1 of 1 for question 17
18

The temperature of a substance is measured with a liquid-in-glass thermometer. Which physical property changes so that the temperature can be measured? A length of the thermometer B mass of the liquid C specific heat capacity of the liquid D volume of the liquid

19

Boiling and evaporation are different processes. Which statement is correct? A Boiling only occurs at the surface of a liquid. B Evaporation only occurs when the temperature of the liquid is high enough. C Evaporation does not change the temperature of a liquid. D When a boiling liquid is heated its temperature remains constant.

20

A glass beaker contains water. When the centre of the base of the beaker is heated, a convection current is set up. Which statement explains this? A The evaporation of water causes water molecules to rise to the surface. B The expansion of water molecules causes them to rise to the surface. C The water above the heat source rises because it becomes less dense. D The water at the side falls because it becomes less dense.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 20
21

A hot meal is supplied in a container made of shiny metal foil. Why does the container help to keep the food hot? A The container traps air which increases convection. B The foil is a poor thermal conductor. C Shiny metal foil is a good absorber of infrared radiation. D Shiny metal foil is a poor emitter of infrared radiation.

22

Which quantity is defined as the number of wavelengths passing a point per second? A amplitude B frequency C speed D wavelength

23

A plane mirror forms the image of an object. What are characteristics of the image formed?

sizetype
Asame as objectreal
Bsame as objectvirtual
Csmaller than objectreal
Dsmaller than objectvirtual
Figure 1 of 1 for question 23
24

A ray of light strikes the surface of a glass block at an angle of incidence of 45∘. The refractive index of the glass is 1.8. What is the angle of refraction inside the block? A 23∘ B 25∘ C 45∘ D 81∘

25

Which diagram shows rays of light passing through a converging lens? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 4 for question 25
Figure 2 of 4 for question 25
Figure 3 of 4 for question 25
Figure 4 of 4 for question 25
26

A beam of white light is incident on a glass prism. X and Y are the two ends of the visible spectrum. Which statement is correct? A All the light travels at the same speed in the prism. B The light at X has a lower frequency than the light at Y. C The light at X refracts more as it leaves the prism than the light at Y. D The white light refracts away from the normal as it enters the prism.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 26
27

Which components of the electromagnetic spectrum are used to communicate from a remote controller to a television set and from the Earth to a satellite?

remote controller to TV setthe Earth to a satellite
Ainfraredmicrowave
Binfraredultraviolet
Clightmicrowave
Dlightultraviolet
Figure 1 of 1 for question 27
28

A student claps his hands in front of a wall and hears the echoes. He claps at the same moment as he hears the echo of the previous clap. Another student starts a stop-watch on the first clap and stops it on the eleventh clap. The reading on the stop-watch is 9.4 s and the speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the distance x between the student and the wall? A 140 m B 150 m C 270 m D 300 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

A compass is placed close to a strong bar magnet and pivots to the position shown. Which type of magnet is a compass needle and what is pole X? A The needle is an induced magnet and X is a north magnetic pole. B The needle is an induced magnet and X is a south magnetic pole. C The needle is a permanent magnet and X is a north magnetic pole. D The needle is a permanent magnet and X is a south magnetic pole.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 29
30

Plastic and wool are insulating materials. Samples of plastic and wool are rubbed together. This causes a transfer of electrons. Which row shows the direction of electron transfer and the final charge on both materials?

plasticwoolfinal charge on plasticfinal charge on wool
Agains electronsloses electronsneutralpositive
Bgains electronsloses electronsnegativepositive
Closes electronsgains electronsnegativepositive
Dloses electronsgains electronspositiveneutral
31

Which circuit contains a heater and a fuse? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 31
32

A light-dependent resistor (LDR) is to be used as an input sensor for an intruder alarm circuit. When there is no light on the LDR, the lamp switches on. The resistance of the fixed resistor is less than that of the lamp. Which diagram shows the circuit? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 32
33

A potential difference of 4.0 V produces a current of 3.0 A in a resistor. How much energy is transferred to thermal energy during 10 s? A 12 J B 30 J C 40 J D 120 J

34

The diagram shows a generator. What are X and Y?

XY
AN polesplit-ring commutator
BN poleslip rings
CS polesplit-ring commutator
DS poleslip rings
Figure 1 of 2 for question 34
Figure 2 of 2 for question 34
35

The diagram shows a loudspeaker that is producing a sound. A student writes four sentences about the loudspeaker. 1 There is a direct current in the coil of wire. 2 The current in the coil produces a changing magnetic field. 3 A force is produced on the coil of wire attached to the cone. 4 The cone spins around due to the force. Which sentences are correct? A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

Figure 1 of 1 for question 35
36

A step-down transformer changes 240 V a.c. to 12 V a.c. There are 600 turns on the primary coil. How many turns are on the secondary coil? A 20 B 30 C 600 D 12 000

37

Alpha particles are directed at a thin gold foil. Only a very small proportion of the alpha particles are deflected through very large angles. Which fact about the nuclei of the gold atoms is not a conclusion of this experiment? A They are surrounded by mostly empty space. B They are very small. C They contain most of the mass of the atom. D They contain protons and neutrons.

38

A radioactive source emitting only gamma radiation is placed in front of a radiation detector which measures the count rate. What must cause the count rate to increase? A a thick sheet of lead placed between the source and the detector B a strong magnetic field placed between the source and the detector C the radioactive source moved closer to the detector D the detector moved further away from the radioactive source

39

Nuclear fusion is one source of energy. What is nuclear fusion? A the decay of a radioactive nucleus B the joining together of two nuclei to make a larger nucleus C the melting of an unstable nucleus D the splitting of a nucleus into two lighter nuclei

40

Which statement is correct? A The orbital speed of the Earth around the Sun is: 2π×average diameter of the orbitorbital period. B The orbit of the Earth around the Sun is an ellipse. C The Moon takes approximately one month to orbit the Sun. D Light from the Sun takes 5.0 minutes to reach the Earth.

Mark scheme

5054/11 · May/June 2024

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Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: B

Question 3

Answer: A

Question 4

Answer: A

Question 5

Answer: C

Question 6

Answer: D

Question 7

Answer: D

Question 8

Answer: A

Question 9

Answer: C

Question 10

Answer: B

Question 11

Answer: C

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: D

Question 14

Answer: D

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: C

Question 17

Answer: B

Question 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Answer: D

Question 20

Answer: C

Question 21

Answer: D

Question 22

Answer: B

Question 23

Answer: B

Question 24

Answer: A

Question 25

Answer: B

Question 26

Answer: B

Question 27

Answer: A

Question 28

Answer: B

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: B

Question 31

Answer: B

Question 32

Answer: B

Question 33

Answer: D

Question 34

Answer: D

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: B

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: C

Question 39

Answer: B

Question 40

Answer: B

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